SMS Dictionary

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases

When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter

When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons

The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower

In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V

When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W

Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21

When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is –
a) 3W
b) 4W

While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ’shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources

Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks –
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method

A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms

For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized

A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors

The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1

The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as -
Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -
a) 72 W
b) 144W
c) 288 W
d) 216W

When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
a)100%
b)150 %
c)50%
d)0%

On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon

TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X

For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used

In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity

The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by –
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters

The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge

When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.

41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V

One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter

It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium

In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f

Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit
a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper

Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point

Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above

In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages

Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above

In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above

Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content

An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut – off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc

A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = bIC
b) IC=bIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB

For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch

A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW

An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz

In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-
a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above

See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –
a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow

A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A

A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time

The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –
a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE

Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c

Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain

The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –
a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication

The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –
A lag compensator is basically a –
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter

Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-
The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is
Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below- Codes
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

If the rotor’s resistance and reactant’s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-
In a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) is-
Transfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz
b) 585 kHz
c) 5850 Hz
d) 585 Hz

An open loop transfer function is given by Its – loci will be-
The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are –
a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed

Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive

The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters.

Diversity reception in used to-
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning

Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode

In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -
a) syne
b) video
c) sweep
d) sound

The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator

In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –
a) 30 MHz – 300MHz
b) 30 MHz – 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz – 300 GHz

Iris is used to –
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect

In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None

Which antennas are used in microwave communication –
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above

Among translator & time of sight system capacity –
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as

No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
a) 3140 flog.
b) carry flog
c) sign flog.
d) none

The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none

While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program.

93. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy

Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number

(375)10 = (—-)8
a) 550
b) 557
c) 567
d) 577

To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
a) 10001
b) 01110
c)00111
d) 11100

Is the Universal logic gate-
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) X-OR

A monostable state in multivibrator means-
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing

For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -
a) T FF
b) SR FF
c) D FF
d) JKFF

His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note –
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible

They started to —– people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept

I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap

Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood

I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for

‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA

Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra

The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10

Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces

The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100

Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran

Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a) Rajasthan
b) Madhya Pradesh
c)Uttar Pradesh
d) Maharashtra

Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these

East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti

The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles

Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy

Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a
period of –
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months

Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude

The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on –
a) 9th April 2002
b) 10th April 2002
c) 8th April 2002
d) 11th April 2002
Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c) —
d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

38. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

39. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

50. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses

55. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
1d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don’t care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

61. The 2’s complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

63. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include?

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

81. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.

83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

101. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

102. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

103. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

104. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

105. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

106. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

107. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

Ablutophobia: Fear of washing or bathing
Aerophobia: Fear of swallowing air
Ambulophobia: Fear of walking
Anablephobia: Fear of looking up
Anemophobia: Fear of wind
Anthrophobia: Fear of flowers
Arachibutyrophobia: Fear of peanut butter sticking to the roof of the mouth.
Arithmophobia: Fear of numbers
Aulophobia: Fear of flutes
Auroraphobia: Fear of Northern Lights

Barophobia: Fear of gravity Basophobia: Fear of walking Batophobia: Fear of being close to high buildings Bibliophobia: Fear of books Blennophobia: Fear of slime Bogyphobia: Fear of the bogeyman

Cathisophobia: Fear of sitting Catoptrophobia: Fear of mirrors Chaetophobia: Fear of hair Chionophobia: Fear of snow Chromatophobia: Fear of colors Chronophobia: Fear of time Cibophobia: Fear of food Clinophobia: Fear of going to bed Cnidophobia: Fear of string

Deciophobia: Fear of making decisions Dendrophobia: Fear of trees Dextrophobia: Fear of objects at the right side of the body Didaskaleinophobia: Fear of school

Eisoptrophobia: Fear of mirrors Eleutherophobia: Fear of freedom Eosophobia: Fear of daylight Epistemophobia: Fear of knowledge Ergophobia: Fear of work Ereuthophobia: Fear of the color red

Geliophobia: Fear of laughter Geniophobia: Fear of chins Genuphobia: Fear of knees Geumaphobia: Fear of taste Gnosiophobia: Fear of knowledge Graphophobia: Fear of writing

Heliophobia: Fear of the sun Helmintophobia: Fear of being infested with worms Hemophobia: Fear of blood Hippopotomonstroses quippedaliophobi a: Fear of long words Homichlophobia: Fear of fog Hypnophobia: Fear of sleep

Ichthyophobia: Fear of fish Ideophobia: Fear of ideas

Kainophobia: Fear of anything new Kathisophobia: Fear of sitting down

Lachanophobia: Fear of vegetables Leukophobia: Fear of the color white Levophobia: Fear of objects to the left side of the body Linonophobia: Fear of string Logophobia: Fear of words

Melanophobia: Fear of the color black Melophobia: Fear of music Metrophobia: Fear of poetry Mnemophobia: Fear of memories Mottephobia: Fear of moths

Nebulaphobia: Fear of fog Neophobia: Fear of anything new Nephophobia: Fear of clouds Nomatophobia: Fear of names

Octophobia: Fear of the number 8 Ommetaphobia: Fear of eyes Oneirophobia: Fear of dreams Ophthalmophobia: Fear of opening one’s eyes Ostraconophobia: Fear of shellfish

Panophobia: Fear of everything Papyrophobia: Fear of paper Paraskavedekatriaph obia: Fear of Friday the 13th Peladophobia: Fear of bald people Phobophobia: Fear of fear Photophobia: Fear of light Phronemophobia: Fear of thinking Pogonophobia: Fear of beards

Sciophobia: Fear of shadows Scolionophobia: Fear of school Selenophobia: Fear of the moon Siderophobia: Fear of stars Sitophobia: Fear of food Sophophobia: Fear of learning Stasibasiphobia: Fear of walking

Thaasophobia: Fear of sitting Trichopathophobia: Fear of hair Triskadekaphobia: Fear of the number 13

Verbophobia: Fear of words

Xanthophobia: Fear of the color yellow

A Professor at one of the IIMs
was explaining marketing concepts to the Students:

1. You see a gorgeous girl at a party. You go up to
her and say: “I am very rich.
“Marry me!” - That’s Direct Marketing”

2. You’re at a party with a bunch of friends and see a
gorgeous girl. One of your friends goes up to her and
pointing at you says: “He’s very rich.
“Marry him.” -That’s Advertising”

3. You see a gorgeous girl at a party. You go up to
her and get her telephone number. The next day, you
call and say: “Hi, I’m very rich.
“Marry me - That’s Telemarketing”

4. You’re at a party and see gorgeous girl. You get up
and straighten your tie, you
walk up to her and pour
her a drink, you open the door (of the car)for her,
pick up her bag after she drops it, offer her ride and
then say:”By the way, I’m rich. Will you
“Marry Me?” - That’s Public Relations”

5. You’re at a party and see gorgeous girl. She walks
up to you and says:”You are very rich!
“Can you marry ! me?” - That’s Brand Recognition”

6. You see a gorgeous girl at a party. You go up to
her and say: “I am very rich. Marry me!” She gives you
a nice hard slap on your face. -
“That’s Customer Feedback”

7. You see a gorgeous girl at a party. You go up to
her and say: “I am very rich. Marry me!” And she
introduces you to her husband. -
“That’s demand and supply gap”

8. You see a gorgeous girl at a
party. You go up to
her and before you say anything, another person come
and tell her: “I’m rich. Will you marry me?” and she
goes with him -
“That’s competition eating into your market share”

9. You see a gorgeous girl at a party. You go up to
her and before you say: “I’m rich, Marry me!” your
wife arrives. -
“That’s restriction for entering new markets”

For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
Scheme
A. Engineering Stream Section - I
B. Engineering Stream Section - II
C. General Ability Test Section - III
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.

SECTION - I
1.
Materials and components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.
2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.
3. Network theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.
4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.
5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-II
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.
2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.
3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.
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4. Communication systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.
5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.
6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.
7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

SECTION-III
General ability test
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LIMITED
(A Government of India Enterprise)
Recruitment of Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom Officers-2007
(1-2/2007-Rectt.)
CLOSING DATE OF RECEIPT OF APPLICATION : 23.03.2008
EXAMINATION DATE : 15.06.2008
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [BSNL] will recruit about 3591 [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) through a competitive examination to be held on 15.06.2008 on All India basis from amongst qualified graduate engineers. The details of reservation position is as under:-
JTO 2007
SC- 546
ST- 272
OBC- 968
OC- 1805
TOTAL- 3591
3% of the total vacancy (1.5% for Locomotive and 1.5% for Hearing Impairment) will be reserved for PH quota.
Reservation as per Central Govt. guidelines will be applicable for SC/ST/OBC/Physically Handicapped [PH]. In respect of Physically Handicapped persons, candidates with following physical disability will be permitted:
i.
Hearing Impairment - Partially Deaf
ii.
Locomotive Impairment - one arm or one leg or both legs affected
(The minimum degree of disability is 40% in order for a person to be eligible for any concession/benefits)
1. Scale of Pay
The post of J.T.O. is in the IDA pay-scale of Rs. 9850-250-14600.
1/19
2. Selection for a Particular Circle & Service liability
The BSNL comprises a number of territorial Circles and functional Circles. The recruitment will be made centrally by BSNL and JTOs so recruited will be allotted territorial/functional Circles depending on vacancies, their choice and merit. A list of the existing territorial Circles, their respective headquarters etc., appears in Annexure ‘A’.
The Junior Telecom Officer is a Circle-based Cadre and the candidates would be selected against the vacancies in a particular Circle and required to serve minimum of 5 years in that particular Circle only or until they are promoted to All India Cadre, whichever is earlier. However, the officers are liable to be transferred anywhere in India in the interest of service. Applicants shall have the option to be considered for a particular Circle [out of Annexure ‘A’ Circles] of his/her choice in order of preference given by him/her in the application for examination. Option once exercised shall be final. Change of Circle afterwards would not be allowed. The applicants should exercise their option very carefully and indicate their choice of Circles in order of their preference. Applicants may opt for 5 [Five] Circles in order of their preference from amongst the Circles at Annexure-‘A’. If applicants have opted for 5 Circles in order of their preference then applicants shall give “Any where in India” as their sixth choice but if the number of Circles opted in order of their preference is less than 5 then one of option shall be “Any where in India”. In case it is not possible to accommodate them in any of the Circles of their choice, they shall be posted to any of the Circles where vacancies are available. 2/19
A successful applicant will, however, get appointment in the Circle of choice strictly depending upon his/her position in the merit-list drawn on the basis of his/her performance in the All India competitive examination and the number of vacancies available in the Circles. In case an applicant does not indicate his/her preference of Circle, he/she will be allotted the Circle wherever the vacancies remain unfilled irrespective of his/her position in the merit-list solely as per requirements of BSNL.
The above notwithstanding, BSNL has, however, the right to post any selected J.T.O. to any of the Circles either temporarily or on permanent basis. The decision of BSNL in this regard shall be final and binding. The service conditions, seniority etc. of selected candidates will be determined as per prevailing rules of the Corporation from time to time.
3. Eligibility
a) Nationality : Only Indian Nationals would be eligible to apply.
b) Educational Qualifications: Applicant must possess as on 23.03.2008 Bachelor of Engineering/Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college/university:
i.
Telecommunication,
ii.
Electronics,
iii.
Radio,
iv.
Computer,
v.
Electrical.
3/19
c) Age: The applicant should not be more than 30 years of age on the closing date for receipt of applications from candidates. However, this age is relaxable as per standing instructions on this subject for:-
i) Govt. servants upto 5 years in accordance with the instructions or orders issued by the Central Govt.;
ii)
BSNL employees upto 5 years in accordance with the instructions or
orders issued by the BSNL;
iii) For Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes upto 5 years;
iv)
For OBC Candidates upto 3 years;
v)
For PH candidates upto 10 years ; (15 years for SC/ST and 13 years for OBC)
vi) For certain other categories like ex-servicemen, displaced persons from East Pakistan[now Bangladesh], repatriates from Burma and Ceylon [now Srilanka],residents of Goa, Daman & Diu, persons migrated from Kenya, Uganda, Republic of Tanzania as per instructions issued by the Central Government from time to time in this regard.
(vii)
For Residents of J&K – Relaxation shall be in accordance with DoP&T O.M. No.15012/7/1991-Estt.(D) dtd. 6.12.2005 pertaining to “Residents of State of Jammu and Kashmir (Relaxation of Upper Age Limit for Recruitment to Central Civil Services & Posts) Rules 1997”.
4/19
3.1.
Further in respect of apprentices who have undergone apprentice training in BSNL successfully, there will be following provision:-
(a)
An apprentice will be required to compete in the common competitive examination conducted by BSNL along with other direct candidates and preference to the apprentices over non-apprentices direct candidates will be given only if apprentices secures equal place in merit in select zone and all other eligibility conditions being equal.
(b)
The apprentices would not be required to get her/his name sponsored by any employment exchange.
(c)
The apprentices would be entitled to age relaxation to the extent of the period for which the apprentice had undergone training as apprentice in the BSNL.
4. Mode of selection and nature of Question Paper
The mode of selection is through an All India Competitive Examination. The examination will be of three hours duration. The Question Paper will be fully objective type with multiple options as answers to each question. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Examination of an Indian University. The objective type examination shall be of 3 hours duration with one question paper containing 3 sections of Engineering Stream Section-I, Engineering Stream Section-II and General Ability Test Section-III. The Engineering Stream Section-I and Section-II would include 50 questions each and General Ability test Section-III would include 20 questions. However, there would be no separate time fixed for attempting the separate sections. Detailed syllabus appears at Annexure ‘B’.
5. Minimum qualifying standards
BSNL shall fix minimum qualifying marks for OC/OBC/SC/ST/PH candidates for each section
as well as in the aggregate. Candidates obtaining less than minimum-qualifying marks in
any of the sections or in aggregate shall not be considered for inclusion in the merit-list.
5/19
The merit-list will be drawn up depending on the vacancies and the choices indicated by the
candidates. The appearance of the name in the merit-list does not confer any right to the
candidate for employment. A final call letter/appointment letter will be issued to the
candidate after completion of all other formalities.
6. Choice of Examination Centre
Applicants are required to indicate their choice of Examination Centre [item 15 of application form] at which they wish to appear. An applicant can opt for any one of the examination centers out of the Circles indicated in the Annexure ‘A’ and submit the application form to the Office of the CGM of the Circle concerned at whose examination centre the applicant wishes to appear. (e.g. a candidate wishing to appear at Hyderabad centre should submit his/her application to the DGM/G.M.(Admn), Office of Chief General Manager, Andhra Pradesh). A list of centers and the Deputy General Managers/General Managers to whom the application is to be submitted, is given in Annexure “A”.
Admit cards will be issued to eligible applicants by the Office of the CGM concerned. The examination centre will be the Circle Headquarters city of the CGM concerned as given in Annexure ‘A’.
7. Fee for examination and application form
The specimen of the application form is included in this advertisement. Neatly typed [only on one side of paper] copy in A4 size [30 cms. X 20 cms.] may be used for making application. The completed application form should be sent by Registered post to the CGM concerned. The envelope containing application form should be marked “Application for graduate engineer J.T.O. examination-2007” in bold letters on top of the envelope.
Original advertisement or photocopy of the format in the advertisement must not be used for applying and in case a candidate submits such an application the same will not be entertained. The given application format must be separately typed.
6/19
An examination fee of Rs.500/- is payable in the form of demand draft drawn in favour of Senior Accounts Officer/Accounts Officer payable at the respective stations as given in Annexure ‘A’. The amount of fee shall not be accepted in any other form. Fees once paid shall NOT be refunded under any circumstances nor can it be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.
8. No Fee payable by SC/ST/PH
Applicants belonging to SC/ST/PH categories only are exempted from the examination fee. In the case of Physically handicapped candidates, this exemption will, however, be available to only those handicapped persons who would otherwise be eligible for appointment to the post on the basis of the standards of medical fitness prescribed for the post (including any concessions specifically extended to the physically handicapped) and who enclose with the application form, a necessary certificate from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board in support of his claim for being handicapped.
9. Travelling Allowance to SC/ST Candidates
The applicants belonging to SC/ST categories will be entitled to T.A. as per provisions of Ministry of Finance(Deptt. of Expenditure) O.M. No.19014/3/77-E.IV (B) dtd. 17.02.1978.
10. Closing date for receipt of Application Forms
Application forms complete in every respect must reach on or before 23.03.2008. Applications received after the closing date or not accompanied by the demand draft [wherever applicable] for the prescribed examination fee or incomplete in any respect shall be summarily rejected and no communication in respect of the rejected application forms shall be entertained. Fees paid shall also NOT be refunded. BSNL shall not be responsible for any postal delay.
The applicants would be admitted to the examination on the basis of the information furnished by them in their application form. They are, therefore, advised to ensure that they fulfill all
7/19
eligibility conditions before applying. In case it is found at a later stage that the information furnished by an applicant is false or an applicant does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, the candidature of such applicants would be cancelled and no correspondence in this regard would be entertained. Issuance of an admit card for the examination will NOT confer any right for appointment. Appointment will be solely subject to fulfillment of all eligibility conditions.
11. Training and Bond
All candidates provisionally recruited shall execute Bonds in the format specified by the BSNL indicating their willingness to serve the Circle allotted and Corporation for a period of at least 5 years from the date of their appointment as JTOs. All candidates shall, before their appointment as JTOs have to successfully undergo prescribed training as per the training plan laid down and amended by the Company from time to time.
12. List of enclosures
a.
Three identical passport size photographs out of which one should be pasted (not stapled or pinned) on the application form, duly attested, and the other two attached to the application (not to be pasted or attested)
b.
Two self addressed unstamped envelopes of 27 x 12 cms size
c.
Bank Draft for Rs.500/- (payable at par at the station of submitting the application) - [Not required for SC/ST/PH candidates]
d.
Medical certificate in respect of Physically Handicapped candidates
e. Certificate of Apprentice training if undertaken in BSNL successfully.
13. Any dispute in regard to the recruitment will be subject to the Courts/Tribunals having jurisdiction over the place of concerned Circle office of BSNL where the candidate submits his/her application. 8/19
APPLICATION FOR EXAMINATION OF RECRUITMENT OF GRADUATE ENGINEER JUNIOR TELECOM OFFICERS-2007
1. Full name of the candidate: ………..…………………………………….
Paste a recent attested Photograph of the applicant [Passport Size]
[IN BLOCK LETTER]
2. a) Postal Address with PIN CODE to which
Communication is to be sent: ………………………………………..
[IN BLOCK LETTER]
b) Permanent Home address with PIN CODE: ……………………..
3. a) Date of Birth: __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __
(dd) (mm) (YYYY)
[in the format dd mm YYYY e.g. 1st May 2005 will be 01-05-2005]
[As mentioned in Matriculation or Equivalent Certificate]
b) Age on ………………………..
c) Whether claiming age relaxation? Yes/No ……………………….
If yes, under what category, [Write the relevant category below]
3c.1. Central Govt. Servant/BSNL Employee/Apprentice(BSNL) ……………………….
3c.2 SC/ST/OBC/Ex.Serviceman/PH/ others[To be specified] …………….
4. Father’s Name : ………………………………
5. Place of birth and the state in which located : ……………………..
6. State to which the applicant belongs : …………………………………
7.
a) Whether belongs to SC/ST/OBC/General : ………………………………
[Write the relevant category]
b) Whether Physically handicapped : Yes/No .…….. % disability …….
[Medical certificate to be attached ]
8. Whether ex-servicemen? If so, the total period of Military service …………
9. Whether undergone Apprentice Training in BSNL successfully ? If so, enclose
documentary proof.
10. Gender: [Male/Female] ………………. 9/19
11. Choice of Circle of allotment in order of preference.
[A candidate can choose upto a maximum of five Circles in order of preference. Sixth choice must be “Anywhere in India”. If candidate chooses less than five Circles one of the choice must be written as “Anywhere in India”].
[Name of Circle]
i) Choice 1: ………………
ii) Choice 2: ………………
iii) Choice 3: ………………
iv) Choice 4: ………………
v) Choice 5: ………………
vi) Choice 6: ………………
12. a) Nationality : ………………………….
b) Whether by birth / by domicile : …………………..
13. Marital status: [Married/Unmarried] ………………..
14. Details of Education/Technical qualifications
[Give details of Degrees obtained only of B.E./B.Tech & above]
14.1 Name of degree with discipline [BE/B. Tech & above] ……………….
14.2 Name of University/ Institute ……………………………
14.3 Month and year of obtaining Engineering Degree …..……..
[Name of Circle]
15. Choice of Examination Centre : ………….…………..
[An applicant can opt for any of the examination centers out of the Circles indicated in Annexure ‘A’ and submit the application form to the Office of the CGM of the Circle concerned at whose examination centre the applicant wishes to appear]
16. Details of application fee particulars
16.1 Demand draft No. and Date : ………….
16.2 Amount Rs. : ……………………..
16.3 Issuing Bank : ……………………..
16.4 Payable in favour of …………. at ………………
10/19
I do hereby declare that all the statements made in the application are true, complete and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. I understand that in the event of any particular information given above being found false or incorrect, my candidature for the post of Junior Telecom Officer is liable to be rejected or cancelled and in the event of any mis-statement or discrepancy in the particulars being detected after my appointment, my services are liable to be terminated forthwith without any notice to me.
I also understand that if appointed, I would rank junior to any J.T.O. who had been appointed earlier by the erstwhile DoT/DTS/DTO or BSNL or any other employee in the promotional cadre who had already qualified in the JTO Examination but not appointed as JTO by BSNL so far.
I understand that if appointed I would have to serve the Circle allotted for the stipulated period of five years.
Date: Place: Signature of the applicant
11/19
Admit Card
Roll No.___________________
[To be filled by the office]
Identical photograph of the applicant as on the application form [Passport size
Please allow Mr*/Mrs*/Ms.*_________________________ Son/Daughter/of Mr** _____________________________, whose photograph is affixed on the admit card, to appear in the Examination for Recruitment of Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom Officer – 2007 of the Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. at examination centre (to be given by the office)___________________________on date/time [to be given by the office]___________________.
*&** [to be filled by applicant]
Signature…………………..
Designation………………..
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
Acknowledgement Slip
Received application for the Examination for Recruitment of Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom Officer-2007 of the Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited from Mr/Mrs/Ms*________________________________________with demand draft** No._________________dated__________of_______
payable to Accounts Officer [B.SN.L.]
Signature with date__________________
O/o Chief General Manager_____________
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
[To be filled in by the applicant
*Applicant’s name
** DD particulars & Name of the Bank)
12/19
Annexure-A
List of the Territorial Telecom Circles with the address to whom the applicants should send their completely filled up forms and in whose favour the Demand Draft should be drawn
(In case of any query/clarification, following Officers as at (3) may be contacted)
Sr.No.
(1)
Name of the Territorial Circle
(2)
Address to whom the application is to be sent/Examination Centre City
(3)
Demand Draft to be drawn in favour of
(4)
1.
Andhra Pradesh
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Andhra Pradesh Telecom Circle,
2nd floor, Doorsanchar Bhavan, Nampalli Station Road,
Hyderabad – 500 001.
A. O.(Cash), BSNL,
O/o the CGMT,
A.P. Hyderabad
2.
Andaman & Nicobar
DGM (Admn.),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
A&N Telecom Circle,
Telephone Bhavan,
Port Blair – 744 101.
A.O.(Cash)BSNL,
A&N Telecom Circle,
Port Blair
3.
Assam
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Assam Telecom Circle,
Panbazar,
Guwahati – 781 001.
Sr.Accounts Officer (A&P), O/o CGMT, BSNL, Assam Circle,
Guwahati
4.
Bihar
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Bihar Telecom Circle, Sanchar Sadan,
Patna – 800 001.
Accounts Officer(B&A), BSNL, O/o CGM,
Bihar Telecom Circle,
Sanchar Sadan,
Patna – 800 001
5.
Calcutta Telephones District
DGM(BD & Trg.),
BSNL, Calcutta Telephones,
34, BBD Bag, Tel. Bhavan, 5th floor,
Kolkata-700 001.
A.O., BSNL, Calcutta
6.
Chattisgarh
DGM (Admn),
O/o CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Chattisgarh Telecom Circle,
2nd floor, Sanchar Bhavan, G.E. Road,
Raipur – 492 001.
A.O.(A&B), BSNL,
O/o CGMT,
Raipur
7.
Chennai Telephone District
DGM (A),
BSNL,
Chennai Telephones,
89, Millers Road,
Chennai-600 010.
Senior Accounts Officer(C&A),HQ, BSNL, Chennai Telephones
13/19
Sr.No
.
(1)
Name of the
Territorial Circle
(2)
Address to whom the application
is to be sent/Examination Centre
City
(3)
Demand Draft to be
drawn in favour of
(4)
8.
Gujarat
DGM (NC), O/o the CGM Telecom.
BSNL, Gujarat Telecom Circle,
6th flr., Telephone Bhavan,C.G. Road,
Navrangpura,
Ahmedabad – 380 006.
Sr.A.O.(Cash),
O/o CGMT,
Ahmedabad
9.
Haryana
GM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Haryana Telecom Circle,
107, The Mall,
Ambala Cantt-133 001.
A.O.(Cash), O/o CGMT, Haryana Circle,
Ambala
10.
Himachal Pradesh
GM (Admn)
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
H.P. Telecom Circle,
Block No.11, SDA Complex, Kasumpati,
Shimla – 171 009.
A.O. (Cash),
O/o CGMT, H.P. Circle,
Shimla
11
Jammu & Kashmir
DGM (Planning),
O/o the CGM Telecom., BSNL,
J&K Telecom Circle,
4th floor, North Block, Bahu Plaza,
Rail Head Complex,
Jammu – 180 012.
Accounts Officer(Cash),
O/o CGM, BSNL
J&K Circle, Jammu
12.
Jharkhand
DGM (Admn)
O/o CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Jharkhand Telecom Circle,
5th floor, Telephone Bhavan, Saheed Chowk, Ranchi - 834 001
A.O.(B&A),
O/o CGMT,
Jharkhand Telecom Circle,
Ranchi
13.
Karnataka
DGM (Staff/Exam),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Karnataka Telecom Circle,
Doora Samparka Bhavan,
No.1, Swamy Vivekananda Road, Halasuru,
Bangalore-560 008.
Accounts Officer(Cash),
O/o CGM Telecom,
BSNL, Karnataka Circle,
Bangalore – 560 008
14.
Kerala
DGM (Admn)
O/o the CGM Telecom. BSNL,
Kerala Telecom Circle,
Thiruvananthapuram – 695 033.
Accounts Officer (Cash),
O/o the CGMT,
Kerala Circle, BSNL, Trivandrum– 695 033
15.
Madhya Pradesh
DGM (HRD),
O/o the CGM Telecom. BSNL,
M.P. Telecom Circle,
BSNL Bhavan, 2nd floor, Room No.213, Hoshangabad Road,
Bhopal – 462 015.
Accounts Officer (A&B), O/o CGMT,
Bhopal
14/19
Sr.No
.
(1)
Name of the
Territorial Circle
(2)
Address to whom the application
is to be sent/Examination Centre
City
(3)
Demand Draft to be
drawn in favour of
(4)
16.
Maharashtra
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Maharashtra Telecom Circle,
Admn. Bldg., Telecom Complex,
3rd floor, B-Wing, Juhu Road, Santacurz(West),
Mumbai – 400 054.
Accounts Officer (F&A), BSNL,
Maharashtra Telecom Circle,
Mumbai 400 054
17.
Northern Telecom Region [New Delhi]
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM (Mtce.), BSNL,
Northern Telecom. Region,
Kidwai Bhawan,
Room No.255, IInd floor, Janpath,
New Delhi-110 001.
A.O. (Cash)
O/o CGM, NTR,
New Delhi
18.
North East-I [Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tripura]
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
N.E.-I Telecom Circle,
Shillong-793 001.
AO (Cash), BSNL
O/o the CGMT,
N.E.-I Circle,
Shillong-793 001
19.
North East-II
[Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland & Manipur]
DGM(Mobile) ,
O/o CGM Telecom, BSNL,
N.E. – II Telecom Circle,
OCB Telephone Exchange Building, Dimapur – 797 112.
Accounts Officer (C&B),
O/o CGMT,
NE-II Circle,
Dimapur-797 112,
Nagaland
20.
Orissa
DGM (Admn)
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Orissa Telecom Circle,
Bhubaneswar-751 001.
Sr. A.O. (A&P),
O/o the CGM, BSNL,
Orissa Telecom Circle, Bhubaneswar-751 001.
21.
Punjab
DGM (Admn.),
O/o the CGM Telecom. BSNL,
Punjab Telecom Circle,
Sanchar Sadan, Plot No.2, Sector-34-A,
Chandigarh – 160 022.
Accounts Officer (Cash),
O/o CGMT,
Plot No.2, Sanchar Sadan, Sector-34-A, Chandidgarh
22.
Rajasthan
DGM (Admn),
O/o CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Rajasthan Telecom Circle,
Sardar Patel Marg, ‘C’ Scheme,
Jaipur – 302 008.
Accounts Officer (Cash), BSNL, O/o the CGMT Rajasthan Telecom. Circle,
Jaipur
23.
Tamilnadu
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Tamilnadu Telecom Circle,
Room No. 325, 80 Anna Salai,
Chennai – 600 002.
Accounts Officer (Cash), BSNL, Tamilnadu Circle, Chennai - 600 002
15/19
Sr.No
.
(1)
Name of the
Territorial Circle
(2)
Address to whom the application
is to be sent/Examination Centre
City
(3)
Demand Draft to be
drawn in favour of
(4)
24.
Uttar Pradesh [East]
DGM (Rectt.)
O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL,
UP (East) Telecom Circle,
Habibullah Estate,
Lucknow-226 001.
Sr.Accounts Officer (Cash), O/o CGMT
UP (East) Telecom Circle,
Lucknow – 226 001
25.
Uttar Pradesh [West]
DGM (Admn.),
O/o the CGM Telecom , BSNL,
UP (West) Telecom Circle,
Shastri Nagar Telephone Exchange,
Tej Garhi Chauk, Meerut
A.O. (Cash), O/o CGMT
UP (West) Telecom Circle, Shastri Nagar Telephone Exchange, Tejgarhi Chauk,
Meerut
26.
Uttaranchal
DGM (A)
O/o CGM Telecom, BSNL,
Uttaranchal Telecom Circle,
Room No.411 A,
Windlass Complex, Rajpur Road
Dehradun – 248 001.
A.O. (Cash),
O/o CGMT UAL Telecom Circle, Dehradun
27.
West Bengal
DGM (Admn),
O/o the CGM, Telecom. BSNL,
West Bengal Telecom Circle,
1, Council House Street, 2nd floor,
Kolkata – 700 001.
Sr. Accounts Officer (Cash), O/o the Chief General Manager, BSNL, West Bengal Telecom Circle, Kolkata

BSNL will recruit about 3591 [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] Graduate Engineer Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) through a competitive examination to be held on 15th June 2008 (Sunday) on All India basis from amongst qualified graduate engineers.

Educational Qualifications: Applicant must possess as on 23.03.2008 Bachelor of Engineering/Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college/university:
i. Telecommunication,
ii. Electronics,
iii. Radio,
iv. Computer,
v. Electrical.
Last date for receipt of application forms 23.03.2008

Two butterflies were in love… One day they decided to play hide and seek They fixed a flower and decided that 2morrow One who come first and sit on this flower Will love the other more… At morning the female butterfly came Very early And waited for flower to open… When it opened she was shocked to see That Male butterfly had died inside Because he was waiting Since last night to tell her How much he loves her……………